Can anyone tell me what wage someone has to earn so they’re no longer “exploited”?
Can you give me a simple numerical per hour value?
They must earn the full fruits of their labour.
So, we’ll say someone works in a factory making shoes: every hour they make two pairs of shoes, each pair being worth £10, and the raw materials for the shoes having been worth £2. They have turned £2 into £10, an £8 mark up, twice (twice because they made two pairs) therefore their labour for that hour has been worth £16. That is the value of their labour. That, therefore, should be their wage.
But oh, what of the factory owner? How do they make money? Aren’t they being exploited now? How do we square this tricky dichotomy between he who owns the factory and he who works in the factory? Hm. Guess we better make it the same person, eh?
I hope this has answered what I can only assume is a genuine and legitimate question, and absolutely not an attempt to bait an argument out of Marxists.
Lol someone actually gave a serious response.via proletarianinstinct